Bob, I sure as hell hope you're not calling me to represent you: I said I wasn't a lawyer! ;D
And actually the FCC
can indeed draft a policy and make it retroactive. That was a major part of what the court case in question was about! The FCC decided, retroactively, to enforce the (vague) indecency rules by a new "fleeting expletive" standard - as in, the decision to enforce under a new standard was made after the expletives had already gone out on the air.
Now I don't know if that particular aspect was addressed in the 2nd Court's judgment or not, and it's too late at night for me to go digging. But I would say it wasn't
instantly struck down in this case. And as far as I've heard, the ex post facto aspect was not the key factor in the decision: it was the inherent vagueness of the standard. But again, IANAL and I haven't researched this case extensively enough to know for sure.
I know that government action can be retroactive, though - the blankety-blank fees and recordkeeping requirements (set by the US Copyright Board) for webcasting most definitely fall under that category...as SoundExchange is fond of reminding us.
I personally think the case will be
appealed, FWIW. I don't have any real lawyerly info to base that on, just a gut feeling. But whether or not the SCOTUS chooses to
hear it is another question. I agree that if an appeal is filed, the SCOTUS will probably refuse to hear the case. Like you said: the question at hand is not Constitutionality - the 2nd Court did specifically say that the FCC has a Constitutional ability to regulate indecent material on the airwaves. It was that the policy they had in place for it was not Constitutional. (I'm paraphrasing here, and probably badly, so forgive me)
As to the narrow vs. wide interpretation, I'm going on what I've seen reported. And while I freely admit that journalists can be notorious for oversimplifying complex things in order to have a more sensational story...what I've seen reported is that the entire policy is effectively nullified by this decision. How so? I'm not sure, but I think it's mostly just because there's so much uncertainty surrounding everything that how could the FCC possibly attempt to enforce
any indecency rules until the matter is settled? Any attempt to do so would invariably result in just another court challenge and the 2nd Court's new precedent would undoubtedly be cited...quite possibly successfully so. Courts aren't slaves to precedent, but they do tend to take it pretty seriously.